"It is possible that either Slytherin himself was of Peverell descent"
I don't think this is an entirely accurate or plausible prediction. Though, yes, it could be possible, I think it should be denoted as highly unlikely. Salazar Slytherin existed sometime around the 10th century (for Binns/McGonagall (book vs. movie) to say the school was built a thousand years ago during Harry's second year). If I am not mistaken, Beedle the Bard wasn't until around the fourteenth or fifteenth century. It would make sense that if Beedle was truly writing about the Peverell brothers (which is hard to dispute at this point), then the Peverells couldn't be that much older than Beedle, otherwise how would Beedle know about the story. For Slytherin to be a descendant of the Peverells, the Peverells would have to be over 400 or 500 years older than Beedle. I was more under the impression that Beedle may have actually even known the Peverells personally. This year difference just seems too unlikely. I guess its possible, but then the Deathly Hallows would be extremely ancient, and so far there is no proof they even existed before the 10th century. Plus, even if that was the case, it is much more likely that Slytherin married into a Peverell blood line. All around it fits in as the most likely scenario. Anyone wish to add anything?188.8.131.52 02:32, December 8, 2009 (UTC)
I disagree, Beedle is a bard, bards recite legends and other ancient stories such as that of the Peverell brothers, I think it's very unlikely that Beedle knew the borthers personally, the tale about death was obviously false, the brothers created the Hallows themselves, if Beedle knew them surely he would know them to be fantastic magicians and would therefore know the story surrounding them to be false, in which case why would he bother to make up an alternate tale by himself? I get the impression that the Deathly Hallows are extremely old due to the tales of the Elder Wand being told across wizarding history and that the legend surrounding it is almost as old and both pre-date Beedle. 184.108.40.206 20:32, December 29, 2009 (UTC)
Ignotus Peverell was married, and was ancestor to Potter. Antioch Peverell was never married, and was not an ancestor to anyone. But Cadmus Peverell was an ancestor to Gaunt, and then he has to be married, but his girlfriend died. How can it happen that he was an ancestor?? -Danniesen 25/5 2010 20:50
- He doesn't need to have been married, he just needs to have fathered a child. Which he must have done at somepoint before his suicide. Jayce •Avada Kedavra•Crucio•Imperio• 21:24, May 25, 2010 (UTC)
- Also, keep in mind that "The Tale of the Three Brothers" is a fable, a myth. He may not have actually committed suicide, at least not for the reason given. - Nick O'Demus 21:58, May 25, 2010 (UTC)
Considering that it's known that Hogwarts was created by the founders at least a thousand years previous to the books, which start in 91, could it be possible that Rather than Slytherin being a descendent of Cadmus, that it's the other way around? If true, this would make the rumors that Harry is the heir of Slytherin in his second year actually true, despite his own parseltongue ability not being natural. Selonianth (talk) 01:22, April 22, 2013 (UTC)
- Rowling has confirmed that Harry is not a direct descendant of Slytherin. As Voldemort is the Heir of Slytherin, and both Harry and him are related to a Peverell, the Peverell and Slytherin families can only be related by marriage. So neither way is true. -- 1337star (Drop me a line!) 01:33, April 22, 2013 (UTC)