I'm new at this so.. here goes:
I've just recently been rereading all of my Harry Potter books to refreshen my memory for the sixth movie release. Amongst reading the seventh book last night, I came to a part that left me confused. As we remember in the 6th book, when Dumbledore was being comfronted by the Death Eaters and Malfoy before Snape killed him, Dumbledore stunned Harry while he was wearing the invisibility cloak so that he could not move or be heard. In the 7th book it says that the Cloak of Invisibility cannot be penetrated when Harry finds out about the Deathly Hallows? Maybe I haven't read far enough yet to find the answer, but this seemed strange to me. Doesn't Harry have THE cloak in question?
Yes that is strange as even the article says that it is resistant to jinxes, hexes, and other spells which would normally damage or otherwise render a normal Invisibility Cloak ineffective. J.K. could have made a mistake though. -- Hellabore(Deathly Hallows)
I think the implication is that the cloak ITSELF is not damaged by such spells, or affected by magic such as the Death Eater's attempt to use a summoning charm on it. It does not, however, act as a shield against magic for the person wearing it.
- Yes, that is correct. When, Dumbledore tells Harry that he regretted having the cloak when James Potter died Harry said that the cloak waouln't have helped anyway. Iw wasn't curse proof. --ShirleyA(The Quibbler) 10:06, 22 May 2009 (UTC)
Just a theory but it could be possible that since Dumbledore had the death stick and that the wand is supposed to be the most powerful wand in existence and Harry had the cloak and because they were both fashioned by Death himself, that the wand can in fact affect the cloak and it's wearer. The wand is supposed to be known to do things that normal wands can not do.